Government business relations paper Essay

Government regulation has always been an important part of business as â€Å"regulations are essential for the proper functioning of society and the economy† (Ingram , n.d). A business is designed to generate revenue for its employees, employers and shareholders (Chindamo, Pg. 4-9, 2011). In a bid to keep increasing revenue, businesses throughout history have conducted trade using dubious, unsafe, and exploitive methods. In a bid to stem companies conducting business in an unsafe and unethical manner, the government has employed several methods to regulate this issue (Ingram, n.d). Business regulation has been highly debated in the past as there both advantages and disadvantages, but the benefits of business regulation greatly out way its costs. (Ingram, n.d) The government uses diverse methods of regulation, which include advertising, environmental protection and privacy. (Holt, n.d) The government regulates businesses in the advertising of products and services. (Holt, n.d) Laws exist by fair trading to protect consumers and keep businesses truthful about products and services. (Holt, n.d) A good example of when a business advertised falsely was in 1990 when a government investigation of GNB Australia Ltd, Pacific Dunlop secondary had falsely mislead the public through advertising that their batteries were made in Australia, when actually their batteries came from Asia and New Zealand (Holt, n.d). Government intervention made GNB confess that they had been using inappropriate signs, brands and flyers (Holt, n.d). Pacific Dunlop gave actions in February 1991 that involved an obligation to improve its compliance advertising program during five years (mainly on marketing and advertising); remedial marketing; different marketing of batteries. (Tamblyn, pg.157, 1993) Businesses can often leave carbon footprints when operating. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates this aspect of business trading. (Holt M, n.d) They regulate laws about environmental protection through education and have done so when enforcing it through penalties to landlords in the state of Philadelphia America amounting to $14,850 and $5500 for not telling residents of lead-based paint within their properties. (Collins, 2008) These fines, proposed by the EPA on July 28, 1998, are part of the implementation of federal lead-based paint disclosure laws. (Collins, 2008) In Business practice, privacy is an ethical and potentially unlawful issue, private information is taken from workers and consumers when leasing and whilst business transactions are being conducted, privacy laws are another way governments regulate business to stop businesses from releasing this information at will. (Grossman, 2013) Information taken could be a social security number, address, name, information about health, debit card and bank numbers and private history (Holt, n.d). Many laws exist to stop businesses from releasing his information, and people can indict companies for misuse of their private information (Holt, n.d). Those laws in place are another way why governments should regulate business. (Holt, n.d) Without government regulation of the key areas of business such as advertising and marketing, companies could take unfair advantage of consumers. The environmental pollution issues which are an ethical issue would have had no stand point if not for government regulation. Privacy would also be violated which is unfair to the consumer and also an ethical issue, which must be addressed in all forms of business. Hence, government regulation of business is needed to keep trade fair and balanced for the good of the economy. References Chindamo P, (2011), ‘national CEO survey: Business Regulation’, Australian Industry Groupm, Pg. 4-9, http://www.aigroup.com.au/portal/binary/com.epicentric.contentmanagement.servlet.ContentDeliveryServlet/LIVE_CONTENT/Publications/Reports/2011/10259_ceo_survey_web.pdf Collins M. 26/03/08 â€Å"United States Environmental Protection Agency Proposes Large Fines For Residential Property Owners Who Violate Lead-Paint Disclosure Regulation† Viewed 18th February 2013 http://corporate.findlaw.com/business-operations/united-states-environmental-protection-agency-proposes-large.html) Grossman RJ. 2013. â€Å"No Federal Regulatory Relief in Sight.† HR Magazine Vol 58 (issue. 2), pg 24-2 Holt M, n.d, Five Areas of Government Regulation of Business, Viewed 18th February 2013, http://smallbusiness.chron.com/five-areas-government-regulation-business-701.html Ingram D, n.d, Government Regulation Factors in Business, Viewed 18th February 2013, http://smallbusiness.chron.com/government-regulation-factors-business-2966.html James G, 25/10/13. â€Å"Government regulation is good for business†, Viewed 29th February 2013, http://www.cbsnews.com/8301-505183_162-28552608-10391735/government-regulation-is-good-for-business/ Tamblyn J et al CH 11, Pg. 157, ‘Progress Towards a More Responsive Trade Practices Strategy’, Date published: 1993 (Australian Institute of Criminology), Viewed 29th February 2013, http://www.anu.edu.au/fellows/jbraithwaite/_documents/Manuscripts/businessreg.pdf)

Can videogames cause an andrenaline response Essay

Abstract Can video games cause an adrenaline response? Our group thinks that playing video games will affect your adrenaline response because we think it will increase your breathing rate, heart rate, and pain tolerance.For this experiment, Richard and Matthew played Black Ops 2 and then we tested their reflexes, breathing rate, and pain tolerance. We compared it to the test we took before playing the game and the results was the breathing rate, reflexes, and heart attack increases which proves our point that video games does affect an adrenaline response. Introduction Your body works in many ways to help keep homeostasis, where all internal processes are stable and constant. Your body uses the sympathetic nervous system to help deal stress and stressful situations. The nervous system is arranged with a fight or flight response, also called the acute stress response, to increase your ability to survive when in danger. The response is provoked instinctively in reaction to a recognized threat survival than to motivate consciously or by choice, and alters your body’s systems to ready you to either to fight the danger or to avoid by running away. When your mind is focused on watching a horror movie or playing a videogame with intense action, even though you might not be in real danger, your adrenal medulla gland still continues to start up because of your stressed state. It releases hormones and a surge of adrenaline that could help you confront or escape by increasing blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing rate, transformation of fat into available energy, and dilating pupils. All of these factors function together to raise your strength and speed. Dilated pupils help you see more clearly, and muscle tension and increases blood flow readies your muscles for action and heighten agility. During an adrenaline response, your body responses increases perspiration to prevent overheating due to the raised rate that you’re expending energy. Your body even increases how fast your blood coagulates so that if you’re injured, you’ll experience less blood loss. Decreased or no awareness of pain, called analgesia, is also an effect of these life preserving hormones. Method 1. First, we have to collect information about the test the subjects. We  will collect their ages, genders, and the experience they had with the game. 2. Then, we will collect the subject’s breathing rate by counting the number of breaths the person takes in one minute. 3. We will also take the subject’s pulse rate counting the number the of times the heart beats in one minute. 4. After that, we will test the subject’s reaction time. We will use the ruler test and test him four times and find the average. 5. We will then tell the subject to play for 10 minutes, and after he is done, we will measure his breathing rate and record it down. 6. Then, we will tell the subject to continue for 5 minutes. We will pause the game and take the subject’s pulse rate and reaction time. 7. Then, we will resume for another for another five minutes and we will poke him 15 times for pain tolerance and ask him after he played if he felt anything. 8. Finally, we will record all of the data and use the same steps for testing the second subject.

Anchoring Script

CENTRAL OFFICE, ‘YOGAKSHEMA, JEEVAN BIMA MARG, MUMBAI 400 021 RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER 1. Life Insurance Corporation of India invites Online Applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment to the post of Assistant Administrative Officer. Candidates are requested to apply On-Line only. No other means/mode of application will be accepted.The schedule of events shall be as under: SCHEDULE OF EVENTS Start date for Online Registration Start date for Offline Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges at State Bank of India Branches Start date for Online Payment of Application Fee / Intimation Charges Last date for Online Registration & Online Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges Last Date for Offline Payment of Application Fee /Intimation Charges Download of Call Letter for Examination Date of Online Examination (Tentative) 5th March, 2013 7th March, 2013 5th March, 2013 1st April, 2013 4th April, 2013 First Week of May,2013 11th and/or 12th May, 2013 . (i) (ii) (iii) (iii) (iv) TOTAL NO. OF VACANCIES: 750 Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically Handicapped shall be as under: ST OBC General(UR) Total OH VI CATEGORY SC 114 56 201 379 750 12 11 Vacancies The number of vacancies as also the number of reserved vacancies are provisional and may vary according to the actual requirements of the Corporation. Reservation /Definitions for Persons with Disabilities: Only the Orthopaedically Handicapped and Visually Impaired candidates are eligible to apply.Orthopaedically Handicapped (OH): Locomotor Disability means disability of bones, joints or muscles leading to substantial restriction of the movement of the limbs or any form of cerebral palsy. Cerebral Palsy means a group of non-progressive conditions of person characterized by abnormal motor control posture resulting from brain insult or injuries occurring in the pre-natal, peri-natal or infant period of devel opment.All the cases of Orthopaedically Challenged Persons would be covered under the category of ‘Locomotor disability or cerebral palsy’. A person having a minimum of 40% physical impairment with disability of one hand or one leg provided independent mobility is not affected is eligible to apply. Visually Impaired (VI): Candidates with visual Impairment falling under Category-I (40-74%) only are eligible to apply. Reservation for Persons with Disabilities shall be on horizontal basis.Selected candidates will be placed in the appropriate category. Page 1 of 9 v) Use of Scribe : The visually impaired candidates with visual impairment falling under Category I and candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy can use their own scribe at their own cost during the On-line examination. In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply: a. The candidate will have to arrange for his/her own scribe at his/her own cost. b. The scribe can be from any discipline.The academic qualification of the scribe should be one grade lower than the stipulated criteria. c. Candidates using a Scribe are required to fill up a Declaration Form (as per Annexure-I) and submit the same along with the Call Letter at the time of examination. Further, in case it later transpires that he/she did not fulfill any of the laid-down eligibility criteria or suppressed material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the written test. d.Such candidate who uses a scribe shall be eligible for extra time of 20 minutes for every hour of the examination. Visually Impaired candidates under Low Vision may skip the non-verbal questions, and questions based on Graph and Table, if any. The candidates will be awarded marks for such Sections based on the overall average obtained in other Sections of the respective test. 3. Eligibility Conditions as on 1st March, 2013 shall be as under : Minimum Age shall be 21 years (completed) as on 1st March, 2013.Maximum age shall not be more than 30 years( born between 02/03/1983 and 01/03/1992 only are eligible ) Relaxations in upper age limit for SC/ST/OBC/ECO/SSRCO/Persons with Disabilities/Confirmed LIC employees shall be as under : SC/ST 5 YEARS OBC Age OH/VI(Gen) OH/VI(SC/ST) OH/VI(OBC) ECO/SSRCO (GEN) ECO/SSRCO (SC/ST) ECO/SSRCO (OBC) Confirmed LIC employees Educational Qualification 3 Years 10 YEARS 15 YEARS 13 YEARS 5 YEARS 10 YEARS 8 YEARS Further Relaxation of 5 YEARS Bachelor/Master’s Degree from a recognized Indian University/ Institution with a minimum of 55% marks in the aggregate in either of the Degrees.If any University awards grades instead of marks, applicants should clearly mention the numerical equivalent of the grades in terms of aggregate marks. The percentage of marks shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects by the aggregate marks irrespective of honors/optional Page 2 of 9 subject, if any. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Grades are decided on the basis of marks obtained in the Honors Subjects only. 4.Emoluments and Benefits: Basic pay of `17240 /- per month in the scale of `17240- 840(14) –29000– 910(4) –32640 (Under Revision) and other admissible allowances as per rules. Total emoluments at the minimum of the scale inclusive of House Rent Allowance & City Compensatory Allowance wherever admissible depending upon the classification of the city will be approximately Rs`33,418/- per month in ‘A’ Class city. Other benefits are Defined Contributory Pension, Gratuity, LTC, Medical Benefit, Group Savings Linked Insurance (GSLI), Group Personal Accident Insurance, Group Insurance , Vehicle Loan (2-wheeler/4 wheeler) as per rules.Service Conditions: As applicable in the Corporation from time to time. The advertised posts are regular and selected candidates, on appointment, are liable to be posted or subsequently transferred anywhere in India. Probation : One year, extendable up to 2 years. Guarantee Bond: Before joining as a Probationer, candidates will be required to give an undertaking to serve the Corporation for a minimum period of four years from the date of joining (including probationary period) failing which, he/she or his /her heirs, executors, administrators will be liable to pay liquidated damages of `100000/- (Rupees one lakh only) to the Corporation.The candidate will have to submit Deed of Indemnity for `100000/- (Rupees one lakh only) at his cost, duly stamped, the stamp value of which will be as applicable to the State in which the deed is executed by the candidate. Application Fees /Intimation Charges(Non-refundable): Candidates have the option of making the payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges through the On-Line Mode or the Off-Line Mode as under: 5. 6. 7. 8. General/OBC Application Fee-cum-Intimation Charges of ` 500/- plus Bank Charges /Gateway C harges in case of Offline/Online Payment respectively.For SC/ST/PH Candidates Intimation Charges of `50/- inclusive of Bank Charges in case of offline payment only. For instructions on method of payment please refer â€Å"How to Apply†. 9. Selection Procedure : Selection will be made on the basis of performance in the on-line test followed by a personal interview of short listed candidates and subsequent Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination. A Competitive Online examination will be held at centers all over India as shown in Annexure II.Applicants will have to appear for the online examination on any one day on 11th / 12th May, 2013 (tentatively) at the Centre (or a nearby city) chosen by them/ allotted to them at their own expense. The Corporation, however, reserves the right to change the examination date/Centre. Candidates will be informed accordingly in case of any change in the date /centre/venue of examination by e-mail and SMS. On-line Test: On-line test will be of objec tive type, multiple choices of 120 minutes (2 hrs) duration comprising of the following: For Candidates Page 3 of 9 Section Questions 2 3 4 5 Number of Questions Reasoning Ability 30 Numerical Ability 30 General Knowledge, Current 30 Affairs Computer Knowledge 30 English Language with 40 Special emphasis on Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension Total 160 Marks Time (Hrs) 90 90 60 60 100 120 Minutes ( 2hrs ) 400 Penalty for Wrong Answers There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth (1/4 ) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score.If a question is left blank, i. e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. Candidate MUST pass in each Section separately and should also obtain minimum marks in the aggregate to qualify for the interview. The minimum marks to be obtained in each Sect ion and in the aggregate shall be decided by LIC of India. The marks obtained by the candidate in each Section and in the aggregate shall be arrived at after deduction of the marks for wrong answers. Decision of the Corporation in this regard shall be final and binding on the candidates.No correspondence will be entertained in this regard. Appearing in the online examination or mere pass in the online examination shall not vest any right in a candidate to be called for Personal Interview. Pre-exam training for SC/ST candidates: SC/ST candidates who wish to avail the benefit of pre examination training may register their name and other details with the Divisional Office of LIC of India convenient to them. The Divisional Office will inform the registered candidates, the date and venue of the training.Such candidates would have to attend the training at their own cost on the appointed dates and at the venue advised to them. Candidates are required to refer to the website under the tab â€Å"Careers† for details of the Divisional Offices of the Corporation. Interview I. The Corporation reserves the right to fix the minimum eligibility standards in order to restrict the candidates to be called for interview, commensurate with number of vacancies and also the minimum qualifying marks to qualify in the interview.Candidates who do not obtain the minimum qualifying marks as decided shall be excluded from further selection process The decision of the Corporation in this regard shall be final and binding on the candidates and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. II. The number of candidates to be called for interview will be about three times the number of vacancies to be filled in subject to availability of successful candidates in the online test and will be purely as per their ranking in their respective category. Candidates will have to obtain the minimum marks in the interview as will be decided by the Corporation.Page 4 of 9 III. Outstation candidates called for interview shall be entitled for re-imbursement of Second Class Ordinary to and fro Railway/Bus Fare by the shortest route from the place of residence to the place of interview to be restricted to the fare by Railway Second Class Sleeper including the Reservation charges. IV. In case of similar marks of two or more candidates, the merit order of such group of candidates shall be as per the aggregate marks in online test and interview and further as per their additional post graduation qualification (i. . the person with higher educational qualification will be placed higher in the merit order) and in case of further similarity in educational qualification merit order will be decided on the basis of age, (i. e. senior in age will be placed higher in merit order). Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination: Shortlisted candidates will have to undergo a Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination and if found medically fit, will be offered appointment. 10.Action against Misconduc t: I) II) Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated or should not suppress any material information. The responses of candidates would be analyzed and compared with other candidates who appeared for the examination to detect abnormal patterns of similarity of responses. If, in the method adopted for this, it is established or suspected that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/ valid, the Corporation reserves the right to cancel the candidature of such candidates.At any stage of recruitment, if a candidate is or has been found guilty of (a) Using unfair means during the examination or (b) Impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or III) 11. (c) Misbehaving in the examination hall (d) Resorting to any irregular means in connection with his/her candidature during selection process (e) Obtaining support for his/her candidature by any means he/she in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution may also be liable to be: i) Disqualified from the examination. i) Debarred either permanently or for a specified period from any examination/ recruitment to be conducted by the Corporation. How to Apply Pre-Requisites for Applying Online Before applying online, candidates should— Have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the declaration of results. Intimation about call letters will be sent through the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share/mention e-mail ID to / of any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.Keep the necessary details/documents ready in case of Online Payment of the requisite application fee/ intimation charges Page 5 of 9 a. b. c. d. e. f. The candidate should have a scanned (digital) image of his/her phot ograph and signature as per the specification given in Annexure III in JPEG format not exceeding 50 KB and 20 KB respectively and upload the photograph and signature. The online application will not be registered unless the candidate’s photo and signature is uploaded after completion of the entry in online mode. Candidates are necessarily required to apply On-line through LIC’s website under â€Å"Careers†- http://www. icindia. in/careers. htm. No other means/mode of applications will be accepted. Applicants satisfying the conditions of eligibility as on 01. 03. 2013 are first required to go to the LIC’s website www. licindia. in/careers. htm and download the Recruitment Notification and take a print out of the same for reference. Once the candidate clicks the relevant on-line application link titled â€Å"ON-LINE APPLICATION FOR LIC AAO’s RECRUITMENT†, it redirects the candidates to the on-line registration page. The candidate is required t o keep the details about bio-data ready to enable him/her to fill up the application form correctly.The name of the candidate or his/her father/husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the certificates/mark sheets. Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges has to be done after successful registration of the application else application will be treated as cancelled. Choice of Examination City: Candidates should indicate the Name of the Examination City in the appropriate column of the online Application form. No change of Examination City will be permissible at a later date. The Corporation, for administrative reasons, however, reserves he right to direct the candidate to appear for online examination at any City other than the one chosen by the candidate. In the event of not being able to fill the data in one go, the candidate can save the data already entered. When the data is saved, registration number and password will be generated by the sys tem and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the registration number and password. Email and SMS indicating the Registration Number and Password will be sent. Candidates can reopen the saved data using Registration Number and Password and edit the particulars, if needed.This facility will be available for three times in all. Once the application is filled completely, the candidate should submit the data. In case of Offline payment, candidates should take a printout of the system generated fee payment challan immediately. No change/alteration will be allowed thereafter. The registration at this stage is provisional. Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges In case of Offline Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges, the payment will be accepted from 2nd working day after the on-line registration and can be made within three working days thereafter at any branch of State Bank of India by cash only.System generated payment challan will be used for depositing th e amount. Once the amount is paid, the registration process will be complete. Candidates should ensure State Bank of India Branch Code, Journal Number along with Branch Seal on the Candidate’s copy of the Challan. Candidates are advised to preserve the payment challan with them for reference and use in future. In case of Online Payment, i) Candidates should carefully fill in the details in the Online Application at the appropriate places very carefully and click on the â€Å"SUBMIT† button at the end of the Online Application Format.Before pressing the â€Å"SUBMIT† button, candidates are advised to verify every field filled in the application especially with regard to spellings. ii) The application form is integrated with the payment gateway and the payment process can be completed by following the instructions therein. iii) Payment can be made by using only Master/Visa Debit or Credit Cards Page 6 of 9 or Internet Banking by providing information as asked on t he screen. iv) In ase candidates wish to pay fees/intimation charges through the online payment gateway after the upload of photograph and signature an additional page of the application form is displayed wherein candidates may follow the instructions and fill in the requisite details. v) If the online transaction has been successfully completed, a Registration Number and Password will be generated which shall be preserved by the candidate for future reference. vi) If the online transaction has not been successfully completed, then the following message is displayed â€Å"Your online transaction was unsuccessful.Please register again†. Candidates may then revisit the â€Å"Apply Online† link and fill in their application details again. In case of unsuccessful registration the amount of fees debited will be refunded to the account in due course. vii) On successful completion of the transaction, an e-receipt will be generated. Candidates are required to take a printout o f the e-receipt. viii) After submitting your payment information in the online application form, please wait for the intimation from the server. DO NOT press BACK or REFRESH button in order to avoid double charge. x) To ensure security of your data, please close the browser window once your transaction is completed. h. Candidate will receive confirmation of registration by SMS/Email after two working days from the date of payment of fees. There is also a provision to reprint the submitted application containing fee details, after three days from the date of payment of application fees/intimation charges. i. Candidates can log on for Registration of Applications on the dates mentioned under† Schedule of Events† on the Para 1 of this notification. j. Candidates shall be solely responsible for filling up the online applications correctly.In case of invalid applications due to errors committed by the applicant no claims for refund of application money so collected shall be e ntertained by the Corporation. k. To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised to register on-line and pay the Application Fees /Intimation Charges (wherever applicable) in time. l. Issue of Call Letters for on-line test: Candidates will have to visit the website under the heading â€Å"Careers† http://www. licindia. in/careers. htm for downloading call letters for on-line test from the first week of May, 2013 onwards from the given link hosted on LIC’s website.Intimation for downloading call letter will also be sent through e-mail/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/she can access the application form. The candidate is required to use (i) Registration Number, (ii) Password (iii) Date of Birth for downloading the call letter. m. Identity Verification for Written Examination. The candidate is required to affix his/her recent recognizable photograph on the call letter and appear at the exam centre with the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof in ori ginal and copy thereof.In the examination hall, the call letter along with the photocopy of the candidate’s photo identity which can be PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Voter’s ID Card/Bank Pass Book with photograph/Photo ID proof issued by a Gazetted Officer/People’s Representative along with Photograph/Identity Card issued by a recognized college/university /Aadhar Card with photograph/Employee ID card of Central/State/PSUs should be submitted to the Invigilator for verification. The candidate’s identity with respect to details on the call letter and in the Attendance List will be verified.If identify of the candidate is in doubt, the candidate may not be allowed to appear for the Examination. Page 7 of 9 12. (i) Important Instructions: Before applying, candidates are advised to satisfy themselves that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions especially age, qualification, caste (for Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/Other Backward Class candidates on ly). If found ineligible on any count, their candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment. The fees/Charges paid by ineligible candidates shall be forfeited.Decision of the Corporation in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, selection and any other matters relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. No correspondence or personal enquiries shall be entertained by the Corporation in this regard. (ii) Keep particulars of date of birth, educational qualifications, caste, other personal details etc. ready as these are required to be entered in the on-line application. (iii) After applying on-line, the candidates should btain a system generated print out of the application on A4 size paper and retain it after signing the same. Please do not send this print out to Life Insurance Corporation of India. (iv) Candidates who are called for interview will have to submit the duly signed System Generated Print Out of the On-line application, copy of the call letter duly signed by the invigilator during the examination, Receipt of fee as mentioned above and also produce original and attested Photostat copies of all relevant certificates at the time of interview, failing which their candidature shall be liable to be cancelled. v) Withdrawal of candidature on account of non furnishing of any information will not confer any right to carry forward or retain the candidature for future recruitment Application once submitted will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the fee once paid will not be refunded nor would this fee be held in reserve for future exam/ selection.Caste Certificate in respect of SC/ST/OBC must be obtained in the prescribed format from any one of the following authorities and submitted at the time of interview District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub- Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Ma gistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner not below the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency magistrate /Presidency Magistrate. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidates and / or his family resides. As far as the candidates belonging to ST caste from Tamil Nadu are concerned, the certificate issued by Revenue Divisional Officer only is acceptable and not by the Tehsildar. (vi) (vii) A B C D E For claiming reservation under OBC category, candidates should belong to such aste or community which are common to both the lists in respect of Mandal Commission and the State Governments List from the State of their origin (as per the list published by the Central Government). The benefit of reservation shall not apply to persons/ sections belonging to â€Å"Creamy layer† as specified vide column 3 of the Schedule to the Dept. of Personnel & Tr aining OM No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) Page 8 of 9 dated 8. 9. 93. OBC candidates should produce certificate as per the proforma prescribed by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Govt. f India which should include that they do not belong to Creamy layer. (Non submission of certificate in the prescribed proforma may render the application to be invalid. ) Formats of Caste Certificates for Scheduled Castes/Tribes/Other Backward Classes and Disability certificates for Physically Handicapped Candidates shall be available on our website. (ix) Candidates serving in Government / Public Sector Undertakings should produce â€Å"No Objection Certificate† from the employer at the time of interview, failing which, their candidature may not be considered. x) Candidates shall not be permitted to use calculators, mobile phones, pagers or any other instruments in the examination hall. (xi) Admission to on-line test is only provisional without verification of age/ qualif ication/category of candidate with reference to documents. Candidates should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated and/or suppress any material information while filling up the online application form (xii) Any request for change of address will not be entertained whilst the recruitment exercise is in progress. xiii) Call letters will not be dispatched by post or any other mode. Candidates will be required to download the call letters from the referred website. (xiv) Candidates will appear for the online examination at the allotted centers at their expenses & risks and the LIC will not be responsible for any injury/ losses etc. of any nature caused to them. (xv) Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/ her being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the LIC.Such appointments will also be subject to the LIC of India (Staff) Regulations, 1960. (xvi) Interview Call Letters for shortlisted candidates shall be sent by e-mail address give n by the candidate at the time of on line application. Requests for sending letters to different address subsequently shall not be entertained. (xvii) Candidates are requested to kindly refer to the website periodically and check their e-mail account for updated information pertaining to the Recruitment till the conclusion of the recruitment process. xviii) In case of any dispute on account of interpretation of this advertisement in version other than English, the English version shall prevail. (xix) CANVASSING IN ANY FORM WILL LEAD TO DISQUALIFICATION OF CANDIDATURE. (viii) Place: Mumbai. Date 01/03/2013 Executive Director (Personnel) ANNEXURE – I – DECLARATION BY THE CANDIDATE AND SCRIBE ANNEXURE – II – LIST OF EXAMINATION CENTRES ANNEXURE – III GUIDELINES FOR SCANNING THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE Page 9 of 9 Anchoring Script MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 Solved Paper Solved by Develop India Group MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 1. India was part of an ancient super continent called Gondwanaland. It included present day— (A) South America (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) All of these Ans : (D) 2. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ? (A) Malwa plateau (B) Chhota Nagpur plateau (C) Deccan plateau (D) Peninsular plateau Ans : (A) 3. Which state of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China ? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Meghalaya (C) West Bengal (D) Sikkim Ans : (D) 4.The leading state in wheat production in India is— (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (C) 5. Which state is the largest producer of tobacco in India ? (A) Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 6. One horned rhinoceros is found in the following states— (A) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura (B) West Bengal and Assam (C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam (D) West Bengal and Tripura Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 2 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 7.Which of the following is different from the remaining three ? (A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Limonite (D) Bauxite Ans : (D) 8. States with the highest and lowest density of population in India are respectively— (A) Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh (B) West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim (D) West Bengal and Sikkim Ans : (B) 9. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Hirakud Project (b) Haldia Refinery (c) Tarapur Nuclear Station (d) Kudremukh Hills 1. West Bengal 2. Orissa 3. Karnataka 4.Maharashtra Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 1 2 3 4 Ans : (C) 10. Arrange the following in decreasing order of size and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Jupiter 2. Uranus 3. Earth 4. Sa turn Codes : (A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 4, 1, 2, 3 (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 3 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2 Ans : (C) 11. Arrange the following from west to east and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. London 2. Lisbon 3. Frankfurt 4.Beirut Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 1, 2, 4, 3 Ans : (B) 12. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Kenya (b) Uganda (c) Uzbekistan (d) Ukraine 1. Tashkent 2. Nairobi 3. Kiev 4. Kampala Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (B) 13. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha as stipulated in the Constitution of India is— (A) 547 (B) 545 (C) 552 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 14. Which of the following political parties is not a national party as recognized by the Election Commission of India ? A) Nationalist Congress Party Downloaded from : http://www. develo pindiagroup. co. in/ Page 4 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (C) Communist Party of India (D) Samajwadi Party Ans : (D) 15. Consider the following statements with respect to qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. should be at least 30 years of age 2. should be registered as a voter on the list of voters in the state from which the candidate is to be elected 3. hould not hold office of profit under the state Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (*) 16. The 44th Amendment in the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Right— (A) Freedom of speech (B) Constitutional remedies (C) Property (D) Freedom of religion Ans : (C) 17. Which among the following sectors contributes most to the GDP of India ? (A) Primary sector (B) Secondary sector (C) Tertiary sector (D) A ll three contribute equally Ans : (C) 18. Which is the final authority in India to approve Five Year Plans ? A) Union Council of Ministers (B) Planning Commission (C) Prime Minister (D) None of these Ans : (D) 19. Who is called the pioneer of liberalization of Indian Economy ? (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 5 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) P. V. Narsimha Rao (C) Dr. Bimal Jalan (D) P. Chidambaram Ans : (A) 20. Green Index has been developed by— (A) World Bank’s environmentally and socially sustainable development division (B) United Nations environment programme (C) United Nations development programme (D) Kyoto Protocol Ans : (B) 21.Public Distribution System is aimed at— (A) Providing food security to the poor (B) To prevent hoarding and black-marketing (C) To prevent overcharging by traders (D) All of the above Ans : (D) 22. Who among the following released â€Å"Citizens guide to fight corruptionâ €  ? (A) Ministry of Family Welfare (B) Consumer Co-operative Societies (C) Central Vigilance Commission (D) Transparency International Ans : (D) 23. Which of the following is not included in Human Development Index ? (A) Life Expectary (B) Real per Capita Income (C) Social Inequality (D) Adult Literacy Ans : (C) 24.Bharat Nirman includes (select the correct answer from the codes given below)— 1. Bring an additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation 2. To provide road connectivity to all villages that have a population of 2000 3. To give telephone connectivity to the remaining villages Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 6 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 25. What is the size of the eleventh five year plan of India ? (A) Rs. ,64,471 crore (B) Rs. 36,447 crore (C) Rs. 36,44,718 crore (D) Rs. 3,64,47,185 crore Ans : (C) 26. Consi der the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. In Beijing Olympics, Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in 10 metres rifle shooting. 2. In Beijing Olympics, Sushil Kumar won bronze medal in fly weight boxing. Codes : (A) 1 is correct (B) 2 is correct (C) Both are correct (D) None of these Ans : (A) 27. When did India last win a hockey gold medal at the Olympics ? (A) 1964 Tokyo (B) 1972 Munich (C) 1976 Montreal (D) 1980 Moscow Ans : (D) 28.This great hockey player was the prolific goal scorer (24 goals approximately) in 1932 and 1936 Olympics. There was demand in the media to celebrate his birth centenary on 8th September 2008. He spent his later life in Gwalior. Identify him‚ (A) Dhyan Chand (B) Captain Roop Singh (C) Gurmeet Singh (D) A. I. S. Dara Ans : (A) 29. Virendra Sehwag scored his second triple century in the test cricket. He became only the third player in the history to do so. The other two are— (A) Brian Lara and Gary Sobers (B) Donald Bradman and Wally Hammond (C) Gary Sobers and Wally Hammond Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 7 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Donald Bradman and Brian Lara Ans : (D) 30. Who among the following won the Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award last year (2008) ? (A) M. S. Dhoni (B) Vishwanathan Anand (C) Abhinav Bindra (D) Sachin Tendulkar Ans : (A) 31. Consider the following statements with reference to Beijing Olympics and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Michael Phelps won eight gold medals. 2. Usain Bolt became the fastest man by winning 100 m and 200 m races. 3. Roger Federer won gold medal in Men’s Singles Tennis.Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (A) 32. Who won the ONGC-IBSF World Billiards Championship in September 2008 at Bangaluru ? (A) Pankaj Advani (B) Geet Sethi (C) Rupesh Shah (D) Peter Gilchrist Ans : (A) 33 . Who won the mixed doubles at US Open 2008 ? (A) Leander Paes—Cara Black (B) Leander Paes—Lisa Raymond (C) Mahesh Bhupathi—Martina Hingis (D) Mahesh Bhupathi—Mary Pierce Ans : (A) 34. Madhya Pradesh won record number of medals in the 33rd National Games at Guwahati in 2007. In which game did Madhya Pradesh win maximum gold medals ? A) Karate (B) Wushu (C) Shooting Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 8 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Athletics Ans : (A) 35. Which among the following awards is given to sportspersons by the Government of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Arjun Award (B) Vikram Award (C) Dronacharya Award (D) Khel Ratna Award Ans : (B) 36. Which of the following is not a style of swimming ? (A) Free-style (B) Back stroke (C) Front stroke (D) Butterfly Ans : (C) 37. Who won the AFC Challenge Cup Football Championship in August 2008 ? (A) India (B) Tajikistan (C) Turkmenistan (D) DPR Korea Ans : (A) 38.Who is the first Indian woman chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ? (A) Koneru Humpy (B) Tania Sachdev (C) P. Harika (D) S. Vijay Laxmi Ans : (A) 39. Where was 2nd All Star Asian Athletics Championship organized in September 2008 ? (A) Pune (B) Bangaluru (C) Indore (D) Bhopal Ans : (D) 40. Who among the following cricketers from Madhya Pradesh has not played for India in a test match ? (A) Narendra Hirwani (B) Amay Khurasiya Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 9 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (C) Mushtaq Ali (D) Rajesh Chauhan Ans : (B) 41.Two new districts were formed in Madhya Pradesh in the year 2008. Identify— (A) Alirajpur and Burhanpur (B) Burhanpur and Anooppur (C) Singrauli and Anooppur (D) Singrauli and Alirajpur Ans : (D) 42. Which of the following cities is closest to IST (Indian Standard Time) meridian ? (A) Rewa (B) Sagar (C) Ujjain (D) Hoshangabad Ans : (A) 43. Which of the following national highways has the longest length in Madhya Pradesh ? (A) NH-3 Ag ra-Gwalior-Dewas-Bombay (Mumbai) (B) NH-7 Varanasi-Rewa-Jabalpur-Salem (C) NH-12 Jabalpur-Bhopal-Jaipur (D) NH-26 Jhansi-Sagar-Lakhnadon Ans : (A) 44.Consider the time of sun rise in Sidhi and Jhabua, and choose the correct option— (A) Sidhi will have sun rise 1 hour earlier (B) Jhabua will have sun rise 1 hour earlier (C) Sidhi will have sun rise ? hour earlier (D) Jhabua will have sun rise ? hour earlier Ans : (D) 45. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Chhindwara (b) Mandala (c) Jhabua (d) Shivpuri 1. Bhil 2. Bharia 3. Gond 4. Sahariya Codes : Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 10 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 1 4 2 3 Ans : (C) 46.Sanskrit University has been set up at— (A) Gwalior (B) Ujjain (C) Rewa (D) Jabalpur Ans : (B) 47. Which of the following is not a world heritage site ? (A) Khajuraho temples (B) Bhimbetka caves (C) San chi stupa (D) Mandu palace Ans : (D) 48. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Bhoj (b) Durgawati (c) Samudragupta (d) Ashok 1. Ujjain 2. Vidisha 3. Dhar 4. Gondwana Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (D) 49. Which of the following rivers does not fall into river Yamuna ? (A) Ken (B) Betwa (C) SonDownloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 11 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Chambal Ans : (C) 50. Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river ? (A) Bargi (B) Omkareshwar (C) Indira Sagar (D) Ban Sagar Ans : (D) 51. ‘Badhai’ is— (A) Folk dance of Bundelkhand (B) Folk dance of Malwa (C) Festival celebrated in Bhopal on 2nd day after Diwali (D) Folk music of Bundelkhand Ans : (A) 52. Which among the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has a problem of soil erosion ? (A) Jabalpur (B) Bhopal (C) Morena (D) Khandwa Ans : (C) 53.Match the following a nd select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM) (b) Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM) (c) Indian Institute of Management (IIM) (d) Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER) 1. Indore 2. Bhopal 3. Jabalpur 4. Gwalior Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 12 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 54.Which National Park/Sanctuary has been selected to house Gir lions ? (A) Pench (B) Kanha (C) Bandhavgarh (D) Palpur Kuno Ans : (D) 55. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Zari Batua (b) Bhairavagarh prints (c) Handicrafts of Bagh (d) Sarees of Chanderi 1. Ujjain 2. Dhar 3. Bhopal 4. Ashok Nagar Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 1 3 4 2 (C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 3 1 4 2 Ans : (A) 56. Who amongst the following has served longest as Chief Minister ? (A) Pandit Ravishankar Shukla (B) Arjun Singh (C) Dr. Kailashnath Katju (D) Digvijay Singh Ans : (D) 57.Which party amongst the following is neither nationally recognised party nor a party recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Bahujan Samaj Party (B) Samajwadi Party (C) Gondwana Ganatantra Party (D) Communist Party of India Ans : (C) 58. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— In Madhya Pradesh : 1. Zila Panchayat Adhyaksha (President) is elected through indirect election. Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 13 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. 50% seats are reserved for women in Panchayati Raj. . Sarpanch is elected through direct election. Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (D) 59. Where is the automobile industry cluster of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Pithampur (B) Malanpur (C) Mandideep (D) Maneri Ans : (A) 60. Of which crop is Madhya Pradesh the largest producer in the country ? (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Jowar (D) Soyabean Ans : (D) 61. Arrange the following districts in decreasing order of per hectare fertilizer consumption and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1.Indore 2. Dindori 3. Hoshangabad 4. Mandala Codes : (A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (C) 4, 1, 3, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Ans : (A) 62. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Jamunapari (b) Bhadawari (c) Kadaknath (d) Malwi 1. Cow Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 14 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. Goat 3. Buffalo 4. Poultry Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (A) 63. Coal Bed Methane has been found in— (A) Shahdol (B) Sagar (C) Jabalpur (D) Ujjain Ans : (A) 64.Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of the following minerals in the countr y— (A) Coal and Diamond (B) Copper and Iron (C) Coal and Copper (D) Copper and Diamond Ans : (D) 65. Which of the following sectors has been given the maximum allocation in the XI five year plan of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Health (B) Education (C) Power (D) Irrigation Ans : (C) 66. Which of the following places has 500 MW unit for electricity generation ? (A) Birsinghpur (B) Sarani (C) Chachai (D) Chhindwara Ans : (A) 67. Which among the following districts has most adverse sex ratio ? (A) Morena Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/Page 15 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Balaghat (C) Jhabua (D) Rewa Ans : (A) 68. Which among the following districts has the highest literacy rate ? (A) Bhopal (B) Narsinghpur (C) Jabalpur (D) Indore Ans : (B) 69. How many districts of Madhya Pradesh are covered under NREGA ? (A) All districts (B) 18 districts (C) 31 districts (D) None of these Ans : (A) 70. Which of the following cities is not covered under JNNURM ? (A) Indo re (B) Jabalpur (C) Gwalior (D) Ujjain Ans : (C) 71. In an open ground, Rakesh walks 20 metres towards north, takes a left turn and walks 40 metres; again takes a left turn and walks 50 metres.How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 110 metres (B) 70 metres (C) 50 metres (D) 40 metres Ans : (C) 72. Fill up the blank— 5 7 74 11 8 185 †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ 6 205 (A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 10 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 16 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) 12 Ans : (A) 73. Fill in the blank— McCain : Obama : : Palin :†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (A) Gore (B) Rice (C) Biden (D) Clinton Ans : (C) 74. Fill up the blank— 5 9 21 37 81 †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (A) 163 (B) 153 (C) 183 (D) 203 Ans : (B) 75. Which diagram best represents the relationship of Doctors, Engineers and Professors ? Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 6 to 78) : Consider the following data about marks obtained (out of 100) : Marks Subjects History Geography Economic 10–19 20–29 3 0–39 40–49 50–59 60–69 70–79 80–89 90–100 1 1 1 10 27 48 9 3 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 17 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 02 3 2 12 20 42 17 2 01 4 1 9 16 48 17 4 0 Pass marks is 40. First division marks is 60. 76. Which subject has the highest pass percentage ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All are equal Ans : (A) 77. Which subject has most first divisioners ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All re equal Ans : (C) 78. In which subject is the average of marks scored maximum ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All are equal Ans : (C) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 18 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 79. A school has 12 teachers. One of them retires at the age of 62 years and a new teacher replaces him. The change reduces the average age of the staff by 3 years. What is the age of the new teacher ? (A) 22 years (B) 24 years (C) 26 yea rs (D) 28 years Ans : (C) 80. A 50 metres long train passes over a bridge at a velocity of 30 km/hour.If it takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, the length of the bridge is— (A) 200 m (B) 250 m (C) 300 m (D) 350 m Ans : (B) 81. A football league has 12 teams. Tournament is to be played on double round robin followed by the two top teams playing the Final. Round robin means that each team plays every other team. How many matches will be played in the tournament ? (A) 132 (B) 133 (C) 67 (D) 66 Ans : (A) Directions—Based on the following information, answer the question 82 to 85 : Sachin, Rahul, Virendra, Anil and Ishant are wearing Red, Blue, White, Black and Brown pants and caps (not in order).No one is wearing the cap and the pant of the same colour. All of them are wearing pants of different colours and caps of different colours. Every one of them is carrying one of the items namely Bat, Ball, Stumps, Gloves and Pads. Further, it is given that : (i) Sachin is wearing brown cap. (ii) Ishant is not wearing a blue or red pant. (iii) Gloves is being carried by the one who is wearing blue pant. (iv) Rahul is wearing white cap. (v) Virendra is wearing black pant. (vi) Anil is wearing red cap and brown pant. (vii) One who is wearing red pant is carrying pads. (viii) One who is wearing brown pant is carrying bat. 82.What is the colour of Virendra’s cap ? (A) Red Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 19 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) White (C) Blue (D) Cannot be determined Ans : (C) 83. What item is being carried by the person wearing white pant ? (A) Stumps (B) Ball (C) Gloves (D) Stumps or Ball Ans : (D) 84. Who is wearing the blue pant ? (A) Sachin (B) Ishant (C) Sachin or Rahul (D) Rahul or Ishant Ans : (C) 85. If Rahul is wearing red pant, what is the correct combination ? (A) Sachin—Brown cap—Black pant (B) Anil—Red cap—Blue pant (C) Virendra—Blue cap—Brown pant (D) Ish ant—Black cap—White pant Ans : (D) 86.Under National e-Governance Plan, SWAN is— (A) State Wide Area Network (B) Systems Wide Area Network (C) State Wise Area Network (D) Systems Wise Area Network Ans : (A) 87. Under National e-Governance Plan, CSC is— (A) Citizen Service Centre (B) Common Service Centre (C) Community Service Centre (D) Computer Service Centre Ans : (B) 88. Google company has launched a new browser in third quarter of 2008. It is— (A) Chrome Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 20 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Lycos (C) Alta-vista (D) Mozilla Firefox Ans : (A) 89.First fully computer literate district in the country is— (A) Ernakulam (B) Villupuram (C) Thiruvallur (D) Malappuram Ans : (D) 90. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Narayan Murthy (b) Azim Premji (c) Ramlingam Raju (d) Ramadurai 1. Wipro 2. TCS 3. Infosys 4. Satyam Computers Code s : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 4 1 3 Ans : (B) 91. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. . Net (Dot Net) Framework has been developed by Microsoft 2.Java is an open source technology developed by Sun Microsystems Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None is correct Ans : (C) 92. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Proxy server provides TCP/IP address 2. Proxy server processes clients requests by forwarding the requests to other servers. Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 21 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None is correct Ans : (C) 93.An exclusively private network used by employees of a company in a single location will be classified as— (A) Internet (B) Local Area Network (C) Wide Area Network (D) ARPANET Ans : (B) 94. In a database, field is— (A) label (B) table of information (C) group of related records (D) category of information Ans : (D) 95. A million bytes is approximately— (A) Gigabyte (B) Kilobyte (C) Megabyte (D) Terabyte Ans : (C) 96. To increase the length of a network without loss of signal strength, we would use— (A) Repeater (B) Router (C) Gateway (D) Switch Ans : (A) 97.If a domain name ends with . edu. us, then it is— (A) An international organization (B) A non-profit organization (C) An educational institute in Australia (D) An educational institute in USA Ans : (D) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 22 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 98. Word Processors, Spread sheets are examples of— (A) System Software (B) Application Software (C) Platform Software (D) None of these Ans : (B) 99. Which of the following is not an output device ? (A) Drum pen plotter (B) C RT monitor (C) Earphones (D) Digital camera Ans : (D) 100.One of the first viruses to attract wide spread public attention was designed to infect MS-DOS on 6th March 1992. Name of the virus is— (A) Brain (B) Catch me if you can (C) Michaelangelo (D) Friday the thirteenth Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 101 to 110) : The following ten questions consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these questions using the code below— (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but R) is not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true. 101. Assertion (A) : In India, electricity distribution companies calculate the consumption of electricity in kWh. Reason (R) : Electrical System in India works at a frequency of 60 Hz. Ans : (C) 102. Assertion (A) : A plant which has nitrogen deficiency will show symptoms like stunted growth and pale green and yellow leaves. Reason (R): Nitrogen is responsible for green leaf growth. Ans : (A) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 23 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 03. Assertion (A) : Gypsum is added to cooled clinkers of cement. Reason (R) : Gypsum speeds up the setting time of cement. Ans : (A) 104. Assertion (A) : People with AB blood groups are universal recipients. Reason (R) : Red blood cell of blood group AB has no antigen and so agglutination does not occur with any other blood group. Ans : (C) 105. Assertion (A) : Wind patterns are clockwise in southern hemisphere and anticlockwise in northern hemisphere. Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in northern and southern hemisphere are governed by Coriolis effect. Ans : (A) 106.Assertion (A) : Protest, led by Lala Lajpat Rai, was organized in Lahore in 1928 against Sim on Commission. Reason (R) : Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member in it. Ans : (A) 107. Assertion (A) : Foodgrain production per capita in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average. Reason (R) : The productivity of foodgrains in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average. Ans : (A) 108. Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution is basically federal in form. Reason (R) : Article 352 has provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in states. Ans : (B) 109.Assertion (A) : Lehman Brothers (an investment banking company of US) filed for chapter 11 bankruptcy protection in September 2008. Reason (R) : Subprime lending was one of the major causes of financial crisis. Ans : (A) 110. Assertion (A) : CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) is the world’s largest particle Physics laboratory. Reason (R) : CERN is French aeronym of the name of the provisional body founded 2 years before the organization came into existence. Ans : (A) 111. Formation of Ozone hole is maximum over— (A) India Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. o. in/ Page 24 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Africa (C) Antarctica (D) Europe Ans : (C) 112. Steel is mainly an alloy of Iron and— (A) Chromium (B) Nickel (C) Manganese (D) Carbon Ans : (D) 113. Aryabhatta was launched on— (A) 19th April, 1975 (B) 6th December, 1957 (C) 31st January, 1958 (D) 2nd October, 1980 Ans : (A) 114. ‘Project Tiger’ in India was started in— (A) 1970 (B) 1973 (C) 1981 (D) 1984 Ans : (B) 115. Gas released during Bhopal gas tragedy was— (A) Methyl isothiocyanate (B) Ethyl isothiocyanate (C) Methyl isocyanate (D) Ethyl isocyanate Ans : (C) 116.Light year is the unit of— (A) Time (B) Distance (C) Speed of light (D) Speed with respect to speed of light Ans : (B) 117. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts ? It— Downloaded from : http://www. d evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 25 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (A) rises (B) falls (C) remains the same (D) first rises and then falls Ans : (C) 118. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Anaemia (b) Goiter (c) Night blindness (d) Beri-beri 1. Vitamin B deficiency 2. Iron deficiency 3.Iodine deficiency 4. Vitamin A deficiency Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 Ans : (B) 119. Which of the following lens is used to minimize Myopia ? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens (C) Cylindrical lens (D) None of these Ans : (B) 120. India’s first atomic power station is— (A) BARC (B) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (C) Narora Atomic Power Station (D) None of these Ans : (B) 121. A fan produces feeling of comfort during hot weather because— (A) Fan supplies cold air (B) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly (C) Out body radiates more heatDownloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 26 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Conductivity of air increases Ans : (B) 122. Which among the following countries is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group ? (A) China (B) New Zealand (C) Ireland (D) Iran Ans : (D) 123. Which river in Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and caused calamity ? (A) Ganga (B) Gandak (C) Kosi (D) Ghaghra Ans : (C) 124. United Nations declared the year 2008 as the International Year of— (A) Sanitation (B) Drinking water (C) Literacy (D) Reduction of infant mortality Ans : (A) 125.Violence against Christians erupted in Orissa after the murder of Swami Lakshmanananda Saraswati in August 2008. Which district was the worst affected ? (A) Keonjhar (B) Bargarh (C) Sambalpur (D) Kandhamal Ans : (D) 126. Which film received the best feature film award at the 54th National Film Awards ? (A) Pulijanmam (Malayalam) (B) Kabul Express (C) Lage Raho Munna Bhai (D) Podokkhep (Bengali) Ans : (A) 127. According to the Article 82 of the Constituti on of India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is on the basis of the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ census. (A) 1961 Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 27 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) 1971 (C) 1981 (D) 1991 Ans : (B) 128. Russia recognized independence of Georgia’s two territories in August 2008. The two territories are— (A) Kosovo and Dushanbe (B) Kosovo and South Ossetia (C) Abkhazia and Dushanbe (D) South Ossetia and Abkhazia Ans : (D) 129. Which country was the first after the ban on India was lifted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to sign an agreement that would allow supply of civil nuclear technology to India ? (A) USA (B) Italy (C) Russia (D) France Ans : (D) 130.What is the cut-off date for recognition of rights under â€Å"The Scheduled Tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006† ? (A) 13th September, 1976 (B) 13th December, 2006 (C) 13th September, 2005 (D) 13th Dece mber, 2005 Ans : (D) 131. Who amongst the following did not share Nobel Prize for Physics in 2008 ? (A) Tohide Yasakawa (B) Makoto Kabayashi (C) Toshihide Maskawa (D) Yoichiro Nambu Ans : (A) 132. Name of the spacecraft for India’s mission moon is— (A) Chandrayaan-I (B) Chandrayaan-II (C) Antariksha (D) Change I Ans : (A)Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 28 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 133. Who among the following was Secretary, Economic Affairs, Government of India and then became Governor, Reserve Bank of India in September 2008 ? (A) Y. V. Reddy (B) D. Rangarajan (C) T. K. Nair (D) D. Subbarao Ans : (D) 134. To which place did Ratan Tata decide to move the Nano Project from Singur ? (A) Pithampur (B) Pune (C) Sanand (D) Gopalpur Ans : (C) 135. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1.Mohenjo Daro, Harappa, Ropar and Kalibangan are important places of Indus Valley Civilization 2. Harappan people developed planned cities with network of streets and drainage system 3. Harappan people did not know use of metals Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (A) 136. Which Indian king defeated Seleucus, the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan appointed by Alexander ? (A) Samudragupta (B) Ashok (C) Bindusar (D) Chandragupta Ans : (D) 137.Which English Governor of East India Company in India was expelled by Aurangzeb ? (A) Aungier (B) Sir John Child (C) Sir John Gayer (D) Sir Nicholas Waite Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 29 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 138. First decisive military success of English East India Company in India is marked by— (A) Battle of Buxar (B) Battle of Plassey (C) Battle of Panipat (D) Battle of Haldighati Ans : (A) 139. Bhils revolted against the British in— (A) M. P. and Maharashtra (B) M. P. and Bihar (C) Biha r and Bengal (D) Bengal and Maharashtra Ans : (A) 140.The modern historian who called the revolt of 1857 as the first war of indepdence was— (A) Dr. R. C. Majumdar (B) Dr. S. N. Sen (C) V. D. Savarkar (D) Ashok Mehta Ans : (C) 141. The newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote nationalism was— (A) Yugantar (B) Deshbhakti (C) Kesari (D) Kranti Ans : (C) 142. Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 ? (A) Most of the leaders were arrested and were in prison (B) British agreed to partly fulfil the demands (C) Because of Chauri-Chaura violence (D) He saw no chance of success of the movement Ans : (C) 143.Arrange the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Dandi March 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 3. Quit India Movement 4. Swadeshi Movement Codes : Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 30 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (A) 2, 4, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 4, 2, 3, 1 Ans : (B) 144. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Bipin Chandra Pal (b) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Brahmobandhab Upadhyay (d) Muhammad Ali 1. New India 2. Comrade 3. Vande Mataram 4.Sandhya Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 1 3 2 4 Ans : (A) 145. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Doctrine of Lapse (b) Partition of Bengal (c) Dual government in Bengal (d) Social Reforms 1. Curzon 2. Clive 3. Dalhousie 4. Bentinck Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 Ans : (C) 146. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 31 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 147. Jammu and Kashmir became an integral part of India on— (A) 26th October, 1948 (B) 26th November, 1948 (C) 26th October, 1947 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 148. The first declared war between India and Pakistan was fought in the year— (A) 1962 (B) 1965 (C) 1966 (D) 1971 Ans : (B) 149.Which important latitude divides India into two almost equal parts ? (A) 23 ° 30’ South (B) 33 ° 30’ North (C) 0 ° (D) 23 ° 30’ North Ans : (D) 150. The westernmost point of India is— (A) 68 ° 7’ W in Gujarat (B) 68 ° 7’ W in Rajasthan (C) 68 ° 7’ E in Gujarat (D) 68 ° 7’ E in Rajasthan Ans : (C) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 32 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 You can contact us for any Question Papers of any year call us at 09999811970 Only in 100/- per question paper Downloade d from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 33

Letter and Memo paper Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Letter and Memo paper - Assignment Example Media print, while still a viable and relevant source, cannot keep up with the pace of this world. Keefe's cartoon doesn't only criticize the congressman's glib remarks, but also calls for bloggers to be responsible for the information they are presenting. As a student and aspiring writer, I am all too aware of the importance of sources and presenting the correct information. The death of the Rocky Mountain News also signifies the dawning of an era that may run rampant with incorrect information and stolen material. Keefe's cartoon emphasizes the importance in maintaining journalistic standards as we move away from print media. The congressman was a bit over zealous in his congratulations for the takeover and should have also taken the opportunity to warn bloggers and citizen journalists about checking their sources and giving credit where it is due. Keefe did an excellent job of scolding Congressman Polis' thoughtless remarks while still calling attention to the larger problem at hand. As you have requested, I have outlined the purpose of my letter to the editor at the Denver Post. I took into account the audience that I will be addressing and the important factors that shape my letter.

Re evaluating Quebec Tuition Fees Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2500 words

Re evaluating Quebec Tuition Fees - Essay Example It is in this light that this paper aims to re-evaluate Quebec's Universities Tuition fees. Education in Canada is the responsibility of each province, with this; educational system varies from province to province. The provinces have their respective department of education, which exercises control over most facet of the educational system from teacher's certification, to development of curriculum as well as the nature of the yearly provincial appropriations to mention a few. With regards to post-secondary education, responsibility likewise goes to the individual provinces. The provincial government contributes majority of the funding to their post-secondary institutions and the balance of the funding come from tuition fees, federal government and research grants among others. Quebec's educational system requires children to attend school until the level of Secondary V. All Quebec residents are entitled to pre-school, elementary and secondary school services which are free of charge in public schools. The province likewise, has a high percentage of children going to private schools. It can be inferred from the table below that, the provincial government grants a pro-rata subsidy for a child attending a private school upon its compliance with its prescribed criterion. However, despite of this subsidy, the tuition fees continues to be very high. Similarly, it fosters a debate regarding subsidies to private elementary and secondary schools over the years.Table 1- Revenues of Private and Secondary Schools Revenue1 On the other hand, for the post-secondary education, most students continue to Collge d' enseignment general et professional or CEGEP, which is a preparation for university studies. Table 2- Average undergraduate tuition fees for academic year 2006-2007 2 What is note worthy about the educational system of Quebec is that it subsidizes post-secondary education and is known for the low cost of university education. Table 3- Universities and colleges revenue and expenditures, by province and territory 3 (Quebec, Ontario, Manitoba, Saskatchewan) 2006 Canada Que. Ont. Man. Sask. $ thousands Total revenue 31,850,915 7,176,352 12,605,754 933,762 1,213,474 Own source revenue 14,578,584 2,148,493 6,917,595 361,069 528,743 Sales of goods and services 11,333,439 1,436,158 5,481,395 258,623 405,998 Tuition fees 6,649,086 633,503 3,403,665 169,500 206,646 Other sales of goods and services 4,684,353 802,655 2,077,730 89,123 199,352 Investments income 945,312 172,044 419,446 15,473 43,526 Other own source revenue 2,299,833 540,291 1,016,754 86,973 79,219 Transfers from other levels of governments 17,272,331 5,027,859 5,688,159 572,693 684,731 Federal government 2,902,432 797,580 1,099,060 78,255 105,641 Provincial governments 14,335,434 4,225,137 4,574,457 494,416 578,531 Local governments 34,465 5,142 14,642 22 559 Total expenditures 31,842,146 7,261,714 12,549,219 946,624 1,245,584 Education 31,211,530 6,897,337 12,368,743 942,819 1,243,143 Postsecondary education 30,902,499 6,797,332 12,182,495 942,819 1,225,760 Administration 5,861,237 1,230,038 2,173,167 214,395 214,133 Education 15,600,477 3,605,818 6,084,588 483,984 618,001 Support to students 1,111,258 169,969 617,910 12,091 30,916 Other postsecondary education expenses 8,329,527 1,791,507 3,306,830 232,349 362,710 Debt

Five management functions Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words

Five management functions - Essay Example The term O indicates organizing by the establishment of a formal structure of authority and responsibility and creation of various divisions and subdivisions of work which are properly co-ordinated and arranged. S refers to staffing which includes selection, recruitment and training of staff. D stands for directing where decisions are taken by superiors and authority and responsibility is passed on to the subordinates. Co refers to coordination and R for reporting which involves keeping the executives aware of the activities taking place within an organisation. Finally, B stands for Budgeting by carrying out the process of Fiscal planning, accounting and other such financial activities. The essay highlights information about all these functions of management in the light of a company. It will analyze the application of these management concepts in Tesco Plc. It is the British merchandise retailer and multinational grocery headquartered in Chestnut. The stores of the company are headq uartered in United Kingdom (UK), Europe, Asia and North America. Tesco has the highest market share in UK. The management of the company is robust in some branches and few of them have failed irrecoverably (Rowley & Cooke, 2014). The in depth analysis of the management functions is carried out thoroughly in this essay (Wong & Hua-Tan, 2014). The article consists of detailed analysis of the functions of management and the way it is carried out by the British multinational merchandise retailer Tesco Plc. The analysis can provide a comprehensive view of the leadership framework and the functions of management carried on in this company. The execution of few functions of management in Tesco Plc can be explained as follows (Wong & Hua-Tan, 2014). Tesco has a number of branches in UK, Europe, Asia and North America (Rowley & Cooke, 2014). Through proper idea generation and implementation of the

Maritime Economics of Australia Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2500 words

Maritime Economics of Australia - Essay Example 88) The current data suggests that Australian ship owners are also foremost in the meadow on new buildings and issuing increased quality and additional services to sea trade. Several of these recently commissioned ships were located under the State flag. During January and February of 2007, 300 new-fangled buildings casing all types of vessels, were added to the Australia's owned navy as 59 modern vessels were added to the 910 ships previously beneath the Australian flag. (Wang J, 2007, p. 91) The Australian owned convoy according to current figures accounts for additional 2,600 ships and its transporting competence being at 218,000,000 DWT, casing 16.5% of the world transportation needs. These figures correspond to about 40 billion US $. (Pallis A, 2007, 84) Australian vessel owners uphold 8.5% of the universal fleet and 16.5% of the planet tonnage. They own 24.1% of the tanker navy, 20.4% of the dry shipment convoy and 9.6% of the complex tanker vessels. (Evans J, 1990, p. 85) The administration of Hellenic owned shipping is performed within the organizational framework of overseas countries such as the Great Britain, City of London thus contributing to the expansion of important commerce centers. Thus Australian shipping acquaintances its foremost development and role worldwide to the intercontinental stock market, the charters' worldwide market and other pertinent economic activities. (Stopford M, 1997, p. 93) COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGES Hellenic shipping comprises of ships that are mostly specialized in massive transportation of parched and liquid freight as well as in shipping of traditional general cargoes. These ships account for 95% of Hellenic owned navy while the residual 5% includes cruisers, coastal ships and commercial. (McConville J, 1999, p. 68) Since it is a universal leading power in nautical transportation, Australian owned shipping operates on a globe scale casing the transportation requirements of countries well beyond the Greek state. This flotilla serves the trade requirements of many countries all through the world. Moreover, shipbuilding, repairs, ship scrapping, marine cover and rental take place abroad. (Evans J, 1990, p. 90) Hellenic mercantile shipping has gained all through the years by providing excellent services particularly in the fields of security of steering and at sea, the defense of the maritime environment and in the current form of safety and tradition. (McConville J, 1995, p. 72) Australia having natural gas reserves and the availability of iron ore offer a natural setting for DR foliage which eventually eliminates the need for reliance on imported fragment to the whole Asia Pacific region. (Stopford M, 1997, p. 94) Australian living principles, circumstances of service and wages, and duty rates are considerably higher than those applying to squad employed on most overseas shipping. Australian delivery can never anticipate to compete against these ships. This is because no Australian would recognize wages and circumstances that counterpart those of the lowest levels of emerging nations. (Wang. J, 2007, p.99) COMPARATIVE DISADVANTAGES World delivery is subjugated by flag of conveniences vessels registered in tax havens like Panama and Liberia where they are not necessary to meet

Analysis Activities Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Analysis Activities - Essay Example Each step is important in analysis to ensure the validity of data. Without qualitative data, analysis can be skewed. It is imperative to understand that data produces results that can be transferred in raw info. In any manner, each step should be carefully analyzed because it holds significance and raw weight to Qualitative measures. Standardization and normalization of data is truly essential for quality data. Standardization of each approach falls under best business practices. These practices allow the accumulation of best practices that are vital towards harnessing growth. This information and analysis leads to more conclusive evidence of the process itself. For instance, if the executing stage fails to fall under the scope, then it is evident for leadership to interfere and rectify that issue. Yes, it is clear that findings should be fully documented and audited for compliance. As a matter of fact, the art of auditing is one of the most pivotal elements in the field of accounting and dictates the criteria of embedding controls in an organization. The nature of auditing might seem trivial, but actually contains intricate details that an accountant must embrace. With these ever-growing challenges, the governing bodies that define auditing principles so have become stringent in their regulation. The IRS, SEC, and AICPA all have collaborated within each other to create standards that can serve as a backbone for an alignment of best business practices, which is why documentation becomes a necessity. Signoffs are essential for leadership to understand what is at stake. The executive management must make important decisions in revenue and sales that can impact bottom-line performance. For instance, many financial discrepancies can be a huge factor. Often times in a project, expectations are not met that are defined in scope and the WBS. Thus, creating contingency strategies is pivotal

Philosphy of God Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 250 words

Philosphy of God - Essay Example Inner growth is possible only through spirituality. Philosophers like Socrates were aware of it and said that human beings must make sincere efforts for such growth and experience the divine. Socrates (469-399) was a great intellectual, who constantly knocked at the portals of spirituality, but struck up at the final frontiers of the mind. He was an individual who cared for the bodily equipment, knew that a healthy body is one of the prime requirement for spiritual pursuits. Jesus arrived on this Planet Earth, as a Realized Soul. He raveled in the state of bliss always; rather it was his permanent nature. To him, spirituality and science were one and the same. At that level, one is the knower of everything, conqueror of the time concept; Jesus arrived as the conqueror of the forces of nature, for a predetermined assignment prescribed for him by God. Socrates and Jesus are incomparable. This is however, not to belittle the intellectual greatness of Socrates. But intelligence of a thousand individuals like Socrates is not march for a spark from the Spiritual Being whose secular name was Jesus! Yet they are similar in the sense that Socrates and his teachings were part of the same divinity and he was trying to reach the same goal as declared by Jesus. The only option with the mind-level intellectuals is to surrender at the barrier of the mind and make profound efforts to transcend it and Socrates did the same but in his own style and understanding. With sincere efforts the grace of divinity it is possible, not otherwise and Socrates knew

Obama's Struggle with Congress over Debt Ceiling Crisis Case Study

Obama's Struggle with Congress over Debt Ceiling Crisis - Case Study Example With this law in place, the United States government would work without prejudice or malice within itself through its various dockets. Therefore, the Senate at the time enacted this law preventing inter government wrangles by setting a ceiling or a maximum on the lending ability; this would not increase for any department no matter the situation (Woodward 1). In this regard, the United State Congress in that year needed to raise the debt ceiling, which President Barrack Obama declined. In a quick rejoinder to avert a crisis, President Obama called a crisis meeting on July 23 2011 between him and the top Congressional representatives at the White House where he sought to reach an amicable solution to the looming crisis. The meeting later proved inconsequential. The Congressmen present included Nancy Pelosi of the House of Minority, House Speaker John A. Boehner, Harry M. Reid of the Senate Majority and Mitch Mc Connell of the Senate Minority. This meeting took place at least 10 days b efore the U. S went into default that threatened to cripple its function, as it would not have had money for it to run on efficiently. It was also held in the wake of a night that the speaker had called off attempts to raise the $14Trillion debt limit and save the government’s repute. ... Allegedly, this infuriated the president but he could not do anything at the time. Eventually, Obama reiterated that it was his duty to sign the bill into law therefore implying that he would not sign it. Surprisingly, the Senate Majority leader Reid Harry interjected and requested the president to allow the Congress representatives to speak in private. This was a clear indication that the president’s presence, in a meeting that he had called for, had no impact. His decency intact, Obama let them have their private session but did not take those remarks lightly. He did not want to appear as though he were a dictator and hence allowed democracy to prevail even in that particular meeting. Some would consider it cowardly but for Obama, as the man that he is, it is the greatest act of power. To him it is not about imposing ideas and infringing other people’s rights but it is about equal participation in decision-making. In the events leading to the meeting, the four leaders allegedly plotted to use the debt ceiling increase as a campaign debate tool come the 2012 presidential elections. Obama had adamantly continued to decline to this arrangement insisting on possible consideration after the elections. Further, the president went to an extent of calling Boehner on the night of the aborted meeting, while he was dinning with friends, to insist that he would not relent and sign the bill into law. The House Speaker pointed out to Obama that his concern was substantial but if they did not increase the debt ceiling limit at that time then the government would have to go into bad debt. Additionally, he highlighted that going back on

Security Threats and Defenses Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Security Threats and Defenses - Essay Example It is therefore the responsibility of any success oriented organization to enlighten its employees on the underlying security threat. An ethical, well goal oriented team is always desired. Information security is a major concern to all organizations. It ought to be part of every organization’s internal controls and operations. These controls ought to be internalized in a way that the employees are made to realize that violation of security puts them at a greater risk. These services to make employees feel their loyalty is crucial to the success of the business. In addition, information security need be given priority and adopted as a distinct value in any institutional culture governing staff behavior. It is therefore necessary to review security policies by offering training forums to employees. Another way of promoting security is by way of regularly reviewing security guidelines to ensure they are relevant an in line with the expected performance. Communication between the management and the employees ought to be health for security purposes. This aids in that employees can report underlying identified security threats before they occur. Healthy communication patterns not only boost security, but also save the company from incurring unnecessary costs arising from security compromises. Fraudsters have devised many forms of interfering with the security systems of organizations. For instance, there has been intensive use of ignorance of controls by employees. This occurs in organizations where employees think some process are long and bureaucratic and hence, want a quick way out of it. Ignorance is no defense as it compromises the security of an organization (Hadnagy, 2011). It also occurs where employees are not well briefed on internal controls and information security patterns of an organization. Proper security training need to be impacted on the employees to avoid embarrassment when sensitive and confidential information is

Bahamian environment Essay Example for Free

Bahamian environment Essay Question: Littering and irresponsible disposal of garbage by humans is destroying our Bahamian environment. In order to define the littering we must first define the word litter. Litter refers to different waste products such as containers, papers, and wrappers that have been disposed onto streets, yards and remote areas. This means â€Å"littering† is the pollution of our environment by different litter waste. Littering not only destroys our beautiful Bahamian environment but it also affects wildlife, human health and the economy. Littering and irresponsible disposal of garbage in our environment is a very important issue, which many people overlook. Although people know littering is an illegal act, many continue to carelessly scatter their trash around nonetheless. Litter creates toxins and pollutants that are harmful to our environment. When Bahamians throw glass bottles and cigarettes in bushes and along the roads the sun reflects off of them, resulting in a fire igniting. The smoke from the fire will soon fill the air, slowly polluting and destroying the atmosphere. Litter is harmful to wildlife also. They may ingest the plastic and paper then suffer from serious illness. Small animals crawl into bottles and jars looking for food and may become stuck and slowly starve to death. Littering not only affects land creatures but marine life as well. Many marine animals confuse plastic bags, balloons, bait packets, candy wrappers and rubber with prey and eat them. Plastic bags and balloons floating in the water look like jellyfish. Turtles often eat them and choke or starve to death because they have so much plastic in their stomachs. In addition, illegally dumped items containing hazardous waste can harm the environment and have a potentially negative impact on human health. Food, packaging, and other materials left to rot provide a fertile breeding ground in which bacteria thrives, resulting in a health hazard for those that come into contact with it. Litter can also create safety problems, with items such as broken glass bottles and metal cans having the potential to cause injury to anyone that steps or falls on it. In the Bahamas, mainly in Freeport we experience many bush fires. When pollutants are left in the air we as humans inhale them, this contaminated are travels to our lungs which slowly kills them. Furthermore, littering can widely affect the economy. Due to animals consuming litter and dumping they sooner or later die. Because these animals are dying they will very shortly become extinct. With no marine life and wildlife, the Bahamas will lose it main attraction which is its beautiful coral reefs and sea creatures. With no tourists coming to see these attractions, the economy of the Bahamas will soon fall dramatically all from littering and pollution. Littering is an extremely important issue in Bahamian society that should not be overlooked. It can affect the Bahamas in ways such as environmental, economic, health and wildlife. Our beautiful country is filled with many undiscovered wonders; let us not kill them by failing to do such a small action. Throw garbage in the trash and not the sea; keep litter in your hand and not on the land. So remember â€Å"Keep the Bahamas clean, green and pristine.

Overview of Culture in India

Overview of Culture in India The culture of India is the way of people living out there, what they speak, their religions, celebrations, dance, music, architecture, food, and customs. India is land of unity in diversity because people of different religions live together. The culture of India is the oldest, yet unique and colorful. There is a certain welcoming about India that are known worldwide for instance, greetings to elders and outsiders Namaste is most common way of greeting. Namaste is important in the Hindu culture because its a symbol of respect and admiration not only for elders, outsiders but, also for younger too. In India, younger touching elders feet it shows great respect to their elders. They touch the feet of their elders daily after waking up and especially on the festive occasions or before starting an important work. They greet their guests with respect and them with utmost care. I have always believed in the concept of Atithi Devo Bhava which means The Guest is considered equal to God. There are different types of languages depending in the places. Each area has their own languages and people like to speak in their mother language. The languages in India besides English and Hindi are Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Punjabi and many more. Joint family system is part of Indian culture to showing respect to their elder. People still live together as joint family but, now people have profession so they have to come out for job opportunities and stayed alone. There is always a hand of elders on their head in joint family and for alone too. Staying alone you have freedom and understanding the life in a wide way. There are different types of festivals celebrated in India. Different people celebrate different festivals as per their religion, caste and culture. People celebrate National festivals like Independence Day, Republic Day as well as religion festivals like Dussehra, Diwali, Raksha Bandhan, Holi, Eid, Buddha Purnima, Christmas, New Year and many more. Holi is the festival of colors because people throw the color to each other in order to celebrate. Raksha Bandhan is a festival of the love and duty between brothers and sisters. It is to celebratebrother-sister relationship who may or may not be biologically related. Sisters tie a sacred thread on her brothers wrist, that symbolizes the sisters love and prayers for her brothers well-being, and the brothers lifelong vow to protect her. I dont have brother but, I always tie tread in my sister wrist or my cousin. This thread is just not a simple thread because it reminds brother his responsibility to take always care, support, and protect h is sister under all circumstance. Diwali is also known as festival of light as on this day every people, especially Hindus lighten up their home with light including candles and diyas (oil Lamp) its celebrated in honors of Lord Ram. He returned to his kingdom, Ayodhys after spending 14 years in forest. Its celebrate in the mark of victory of good over evil. There is a tradition of worshiping Devi Lakshmi and Ganapati (elephant head God) on this day because its done for securing peace, prosperity, wealth and happiness. People celebrate Dussehra festival to mark the victory of Lord Rama over Ravana. Rama is an incarnation of Lord Vishnu. Ravana was an evil demon. It signifiesthe victory of good over the evil. People go to see the famous folk play of Ram Lila. The story of Lord Rama is shown in the play. The epic Ramayana tells the story of the Lord Rama who wins the lovely Sita as his wife, only to have her carried off by Ravana, the demon king of Lanka. Ravana plays an important role in the Ramayana. Buddha Purnima celebrated actually for the eve of birth, enlightenment and passing into nirvana of Gautama Buddha. On the day of Buddha Purnima, the devotees gather together in the Buddhist Temples to hoist the Buddhist flag. Temples are decorated beautifully. Flowers are offered to teachers. Devotees are encouraged to refrain from violence and to accept only vegetarian food. On this day, the Buddhist monks teach the teachings of Buddha. The devotees are encouraged to follow the teachings of the great master. The teachings of Gautama Buddha were simple. He asked his disciples to judge his teachings with their own intellect and then decide if they want to follow his teachings or not. The eight noble path of Buddha are of right belief, intent, speech, behavior, effort, livelihood, contemplation and concentration. Bodh Gaya is a sacred religious site in India. It is believed that Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment in Bode Gaya. Every year, many devotees from all over the world come t o this place to celebrate Buddha Purnima. Art, literature, theater and film (world famous Bollywood films), and architecture have flourished in India for centuries and they continue to flourish today. The Ramayana is one of the oldest known epic works of literature. India has full of talents in the field of art or architecture includes paintings, rangoli, plastic arts like pottery, and textile arts like woven silk, etc. For examples including paintings of Ajanta cave, Paintings of Ellora cave, etc. Rangoli are the art generally made by the female members of the family. From ages, India has great number of architecture like Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram, temples of Thanjavur, Kanchipuram and many more. It seems that wherever you turn in India you will come across a site of historic, natural or cultural importance. India is rich in heritage, and some of the main UNESCO world heritage sites in India are Taj Mahal: Tourists flock from all over the world to see this resplendent seventeenth century palace. The Great Himalayan National Park is worlds tallest mountain. Agra Fort: The Yumana river flows serenely past this ancient fort in the state of Uttar Pradesh. Elephant Caves: Deep inside these spooky caves you will find elegant statues and designs carved by the human hand. Indian culture would remain incomplete if we do not discuss the various classical, fold dance forms, Music, clothing and Food. The most popular Classical dance forms are Bharatanatyam, Kathakali, Kathak, Manipuri, etc. Folk dances are mainly performed in any occasion like birth of a child, festivals, harvesting seasons, wedding events, etc. For Indians, music is to soul what food is to body. Since Vedic period, it has been capturing the heart and mind of every Indian. In the classical Indian music, there are basically two types of schools- the Hindustani Music (North) and the Carnatic Music (South). Raga arrangement of musical notes is the key in the classical music. The Indian villages also have their special kind of music that carries colours of folk tradition. Music of Indian movies is also liked by the masses. Indian clothing is closely identified with the colorful silk sarees worn by many of the countrys women. Different regions of India have different specialty and variety of sarees. In Punjab the traditional dress is Salwar Kameez and in Rajasthan it is Gagra Choli or also known as Lehenga. The traditional clothing for men is the dhoti, an unstitched piece of cloth that is tied around the waist and legs. Men also wear a kurta, a loose shirt that is worn about knee-length. For special occasions, men wear a sherwani, which is a long coat that is buttoned up to the collar and down to the knees. When the Moghul Empire invaded during the sixteenth century, they left a significant mark on the Indian cuisine. Indian cuisine is also influenced by many other countries and It is known for large assortment of dishes and liberal use of herbs and spices. The most important parts of the Indian cuisine are rice, flour and an element called pulses. Pulses are red lentils, Bengal ram, pigeon pea, black gram and green gram. The variety in Indian spices like black pepper, coriander seeds, cardamom, saffron and cumin seeds not only enhance the flavor of the food but also add value to it. North India has chole bhature, tandoori chicken, rajma chawal, kadhi chawal, dhokla, daal baati churma and biryani to relish, South India is not behind in the race. From masala dosa, rava uttpam, rasam, sambar-lemon rice to toran, appam, meen; the South Indian cuisine has a great variety to offer. Many Hindus are vegetarians, but lamb, goat and chicken are common in main dishes for non-vegetarians. Hindu do not eat beef but, non-Hindu interpret these beliefs mean that Hindu worship cow which not true. The cow is thought to be sacred, deeply honor, respect and adore. In India most states have banned cow slaughter and almost 90% dont prefer to eat. Both Hindu and Non Hindu do not prefer to eat pork. Sources Indian Culture Tradition The Basis Behind Its Elements. Sadhguru, 14 Feb. 2014. Web. 08 Mar. 2018. Choudhury, Samar. Essay on Indian Culture and Tradition. Important India. N.p., 21 Dec. 2015. Web. 08 Mar. 2017. Zimmermann, Kim Ann. Indian Culture: Traditions and Customs of India. LiveScience. Purch, 30 Jan. 2015. Web. 08 Mar. 2017. Culture of India. Culture of India Find All About Indian Culture. N.p., n.d. Web. 08 Mar. 2017. Home. India Language, Culture, Customs and Etiquette. N.p., n.d. Web. 09 Mar. 2017.